I just had some thoughts on some of the ideas that you open up for discussion on your 1st AP Question prompt. I want to divide my discussion into two key areas of analysis; first, the purpose you propose for Shakespearean allusions, and second, the usage of Shakespeare for satire.
In your first paragraph, you assert that Shakespeare can represent human morality. Though you eloquently support this notion, fundamentally I still don't understand what is the linkage that allows you to make this connection. Yes, Shakespeare is an integral part of humanity, a significant part of the construct of both Western literature and society. However, how can we judge that they are actually allusions to reflect upon good/bad behavior? Furthermore, how can the story of Othello be a meaningful link to the immoral actions of Lenina? I believe once you detail this connection further, the point you are trying to make will be much enhanced.
I really do like, however, the usage of Shakespearean allusions for the sake of dead-pan satire. It is amazing that for something that markets the book so ostentatiously, more attention is not often given by literary critics to the profoundness of a novel's title. I commend you for breaking the norm, and actually reflecting upon this further. The connection you illustrated was very clear; relating the title to "Tempest" made a lot of sense when I went and re-familiarized myself with the work. I do, however, want to leave you with a simple question: is it far for shakespearean allusions to be used to criticize a sci-fi, "dystopian" world, when many of Shakespeare's settings are filled with equally unimagniable elements, like the gay frolic of fairies, and other magical organisms?
I found your discussion of Shakespearian allusions to be very insightful, particularly your point about the allusions being used to criticize the idea of a scientific world. I think that there is irony in the relationship between Huxley’s assertions and the fact that Shakespeare was writing his plays in the midst of the Scientific Revolution in Europe, specifically during the controversy surrounding the planetary discoveries by scientists such as Galileo. It’s interesting that Shakespeare wrote during a time transitioning into a world dominated by empiricism whereas Huxley uses Shakespearean allusions to show the necessity of a transition away from “a mechanized society.”
The allusions also create juxtaposition between the rationality and immorality of science. For instance, you used sex as an example, which from a rational perspective could be seen as natural and necessary, but from a moral perspective, is seen as “stew’d in corruption.” The sharp contrast between the narrator’s view on empiricism and morality, however, shows his bias. He seems very self-righteous and quick to judge others, such as Linda and Lenina, who are both merely products of their society. I think that the bias is necessary, however, because it creates the criticism of society inherent to Huxley’s novel.
Hey Shreetej,
ReplyDeleteI just had some thoughts on some of the ideas that you open up for discussion on your 1st AP Question prompt. I want to divide my discussion into two key areas of analysis; first, the purpose you propose for Shakespearean allusions, and second, the usage of Shakespeare for satire.
In your first paragraph, you assert that Shakespeare can represent human morality. Though you eloquently support this notion, fundamentally I still don't understand what is the linkage that allows you to make this connection. Yes, Shakespeare is an integral part of humanity, a significant part of the construct of both Western literature and society. However, how can we judge that they are actually allusions to reflect upon good/bad behavior? Furthermore, how can the story of Othello be a meaningful link to the immoral actions of Lenina? I believe once you detail this connection further, the point you are trying to make will be much enhanced.
I really do like, however, the usage of Shakespearean allusions for the sake of dead-pan satire. It is amazing that for something that markets the book so ostentatiously, more attention is not often given by literary critics to the profoundness of a novel's title. I commend you for breaking the norm, and actually reflecting upon this further. The connection you illustrated was very clear; relating the title to "Tempest" made a lot of sense when I went and re-familiarized myself with the work. I do, however, want to leave you with a simple question: is it far for shakespearean allusions to be used to criticize a sci-fi, "dystopian" world, when many of Shakespeare's settings are filled with equally unimagniable elements, like the gay frolic of fairies, and other magical organisms?
I found your discussion of Shakespearian allusions to be very insightful, particularly your point about the allusions being used to criticize the idea of a scientific world. I think that there is irony in the relationship between Huxley’s assertions and the fact that Shakespeare was writing his plays in the midst of the Scientific Revolution in Europe, specifically during the controversy surrounding the planetary discoveries by scientists such as Galileo. It’s interesting that Shakespeare wrote during a time transitioning into a world dominated by empiricism whereas Huxley uses Shakespearean allusions to show the necessity of a transition away from “a mechanized society.”
ReplyDeleteThe allusions also create juxtaposition between the rationality and immorality of science. For instance, you used sex as an example, which from a rational perspective could be seen as natural and necessary, but from a moral perspective, is seen as “stew’d in corruption.” The sharp contrast between the narrator’s view on empiricism and morality, however, shows his bias. He seems very self-righteous and quick to judge others, such as Linda and Lenina, who are both merely products of their society. I think that the bias is necessary, however, because it creates the criticism of society inherent to Huxley’s novel.